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Thursday, December 13, 2012

What is the Ruling on Renting to Own a Product?

Question answered by Shaykh Sa’d bin Naasir ash-Shithree [May Allaah have Mercy on him]

These are new forms of contracts that exist today. The Fuqaha have various opinions on such forms of transactions.
Some have stated that combining two transactions in one contract is not permissible, so this type of transaction to them would be impermissible as it contains renting as well as buying at the same time. Furthermore, renting and buying can’t be combined as they are two contradictory transactions this is because the purpose of renting is not the same as buying something. This view suggests that this type of transaction is Haraam based on the Hadeeth which prevents two transactions in one contract.

Others stated that the intent behind such a transaction is that the buyer and the seller have the intent to trade and not rent, therefore possession will be transferred. Therefore, monthly payments are made as a form of instalments.
Others held an opinion based on the principle, ‘if someone promises you something, this becomes binding’ and this is a principle used by the Maaliki scholars. Meaning, if one promises you something then this becomes a binding contract. However, this view is based on weak arguments as they don’t have solid evidence to back such a view. This is because, if someone promises to do something and then that thing becomes obligatory for him then this doesn’t mean a binding contract has been formed, rather it a promise means that one party will do something for another party. Based on this, it is not correct to form contracts based on the principle, ‘if someone promises you something, this becomes binding’.

There are others who held the opinion that these types of contracts are bound by time. Meaning, the first period of the contract is a period of renting and then this gets transformed into a contract of trade at a later stage. I say: this opinion has a view within the Sharee’ah and there are many examples of such. For example, if one puts a deposit to buy something and then completes the payment at a later date then we say this is permissible. If the buyer doesn’t make the payment then it is permissible for the seller to keep the deposit. This is similar to one renting to own. This is because two transactions aren’t made in one transaction, there is a gap between the rental and the final payment which means one takes possession of the item. This final explanation is the most correct and the strongest view.
However, we still need to discuss a certain matter. This is that the person who undergoes such a transaction falls under one who rents in the first stage and is not a person who buying, therefore making a down payment at this stage is not permissible. By making a down payment at this stage, it means that he is buying the item and then the monthly instalments means he returns to being a renter again, this is not permissible. Renting has no such condition as a making a down payment.

[Sharh Manhaj as-Saalikeen (Tape 46, 24 – 28 minutes)]

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